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indigomatt
20th May 2011, 11:48 AM
Afternoon a taxing (!) question,
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A friend of mine has been off work for two years with an injury; initially on sick pay, then statuary sick pay and then sadly having to move through entitled benefits; employment and support allowance etc.
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Today has got a P60 through from her ‘old’ employer with £0.00 for all amounts.
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Was does this mean, is she still technically employed, would they owe her monies, paid leave, pension contributions ???
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Ta, Matthew

Neil and Lorna
20th May 2011, 09:18 PM
Hi Matt

Sounds like your friend is still on the payroll system at that employment.
P60 are issued to all employee's that are on the payroll. Or have been in the year previous.
A P60 is produced for all employee's who have worked in that particular year, if somebody has left the P60 is simply stored with the other paperwork, as they should be given one from their new employer.

Hope I've made it as clear as I could.

Neil.:cool:

Neil and Lorna
20th May 2011, 09:22 PM
Also Matt

They are still technically employed by that company if they haven't been issued a P45, whether they are entitled any money I'm not sure.


Neil.

Gismo
20th May 2011, 09:44 PM
Also Matt

They are still technically employed by that company if they haven't been issued a P45, whether they are entitled any money I'm not sure.


Neil.As Neil says, however, unless a termination letter has been successfully issued then the person is still employed by that company and payroll will be determined by their employment contract.